## The Gravitation Constant
Newton had no estimate for its value, rather he worked in terms of ratios of forces but it was measured in a laboratory by the very odd Henry Cavendish about a century later. It is a fundamental constant of nature. It. Just. Is. There’s no deriving it. Were it different by a little, our whole universe would be very different.
>The gravitational force is very weak and characterized by a single constant of nature, $G$.
>**Gravitation Constant: big G**
$$G=6.67 \times 10^{-11}\text{ N m}^2\text{kg}^{-2}$$
> It's also that collection of constants in Equation 7.8:
$$G=\left(M_E \frac{4\pi^2}{k_E} \right) \nonumber $$
> **Wait.** What happened to $k_E$?
> **Glad you asked.** Notice that our use of $k_E$ gets swallowed up into $G$. But there's also $M_E$ in there. Were we talking about, say the Earth-Sun system, then there'd be a different $k_S$, but then the $M_S$ would be upstairs and their ratio would still be the same as for the Earth-Moon. So the little $k$'s were placeholders for a bigger idea.
In Equation (1) the force of attraction *on* 1 due to 2 is $F_{1,2}$ while the force of attraction *on* 2 due to 1 is $F_{2,1}$. From Newton’s Third law? They’re equal in Equation Equation \@ref(eq:universal): $F=F_{1,2}=F_{2,1}$.
```{admonition} Please answer Question 1 for points:
:class: danger
Space station weightlessness?
```
### Little *g* Again {#cos2gagain}
Now we can understand Galileo’s result from a modern point of view. With the Universal law of Gravitation and Newton’s Second law, the acceleration due to a gravitating body can be isolated from Newton’s rule by finding the "$a$” and the “$m$.” To see what I mean, look at this figure:
> **Glad you asked.** Yes. Galileo’s $g$ is really not a constant, but it varies very little...even for large distances above the Earth. So for all practical purposes, we can consider it to be a constant.
Here we have a situation that’s going to repeat itself over and over in the history of physics. Galileo said that the acceleration due to gravity was constant. Then along came Newton who showed that this wasn’t right in the strictest sense: that the acceleration due to gravity varies as you move away from the gravitating object.
Was Galileo wrong?
If there ever was a Law of Nature, Gravitation was it. But then it was shown to be the case only in a restricted domain...in this case, when you’re close to the surface of the Earth. There’s really no circumstance that you or any of us (except for a handful of astronauts) will ever experience in which Galileo's conclusion was practically incorrect.
This is the essence of a model: a model makes predictions about nature, but with the caveat that the precision of that prediction depends on one's ability to measure.
The scenario runs like this: First, Theory A explains a feature of the world and establishes a fact of nature and a mathematical Model that uses it. Then along comes Theory B that shows that the facts and the models of Theory A are not universally applicable. Typically, the facts of Theory A and the models in Theory A are included in the facts and the models of Theory B *within a domain of experience that’s smaller than the domain that Theory A describes*. When this happens we’d say two things: first, Theory B is more inclusive than Theory A. It explains more about the universe and over a wider domain. And second, Theory A is still the case when applied to the restricted domain of experience that’s a subset of the domain of Theory B. In this case, Newton’s theory (B) explains gravitation everywhere. Galileo’s theory explains gravitation only in the region near the surface of the Earth (A). We still happily—and reliably—use a constant $g$ in the design of any structure or vehicle, for example. In the Enlightenment, and for centuries after, if there *ever* was a Law of Nature, Newton's Gravitation was it. It's basically where the capital "L" idea for physics originated. But, Newton’s gravitation Law...will become a “Theory” in a few hundred years at the hand of Albert Einstein.